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===Answer 1===
 
===Answer 1===
Write it here.
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By the properties of pdfs we know that:
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<math>\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f_X(x) dx = 1.</math>
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<math>Let, I = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx.</math>
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By introduction a new term <math> e^{\frac{-y^2}{2}} </math> we know that:
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<math>I^2 = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}e^{\frac{-y^2}{2}}dxdy = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2-y^2}{2}}dxdy = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(x^2 + y^2\right)}dxdy.</math>
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Now, we need to change to polar coordinates.  We know that <math> r^2 = x^2 + y^2, </math> and that the Jacobian for Polar coordinates is <math> r. </math>  By performing the substitution we have:
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<math> I^2 = \int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}\int\limits_0^{2\pi}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}d{\theta}dr. </math>
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Now, we just need to evaluate the integral:
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<math> I^2 = \int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}\int\limits_0^{2\pi}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}d{\theta}dr = 2\pi\int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}dr = 2\pi\left(-e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}\right)\bigg|_{0}^{+\infty} = 2\pi\left(0 + 1\right) = 2\pi.</math>
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Now, we solve for <math>I</math>:
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<math>I = \sqrt{2\pi}.</math>
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Returning to the original problem,  we actually want to solve:
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<math>1 = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f_X(x) dx = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}C e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx = C\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx = C \times I = C \times \sqrt{2\pi}. </math>
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Now, solving for the constant <math> C: </math>
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<math> C = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}. </math>
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===Answer 2===
 
===Answer 2===
 
Write it here.
 
Write it here.

Revision as of 07:38, 23 February 2013

Practice Problem: normalizing the probability mass function of a continuous random variable


A random variable X has the following probability density function:

$ f_X (x) = C e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}} , $

where C is a constant. Find the value of the constant C.


Share your answers below

You will receive feedback from your instructor and TA directly on this page. Other students are welcome to comment/discuss/point out mistakes/ask questions too!


Answer 1

By the properties of pdfs we know that:

$ \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f_X(x) dx = 1. $

$ Let, I = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx. $

By introduction a new term $ e^{\frac{-y^2}{2}} $ we know that:

$ I^2 = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}e^{\frac{-y^2}{2}}dxdy = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2-y^2}{2}}dxdy = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\frac{1}{2}\left(x^2 + y^2\right)}dxdy. $

Now, we need to change to polar coordinates. We know that $ r^2 = x^2 + y^2, $ and that the Jacobian for Polar coordinates is $ r. $ By performing the substitution we have:

$ I^2 = \int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}\int\limits_0^{2\pi}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}d{\theta}dr. $

Now, we just need to evaluate the integral:


$ I^2 = \int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}\int\limits_0^{2\pi}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}d{\theta}dr = 2\pi\int\limits_{0}^{+\infty}re^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}dr = 2\pi\left(-e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}\right)\bigg|_{0}^{+\infty} = 2\pi\left(0 + 1\right) = 2\pi. $


Now, we solve for $ I $:

$ I = \sqrt{2\pi}. $

Returning to the original problem, we actually want to solve:

$ 1 = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f_X(x) dx = \int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}C e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx = C\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{\frac{-x^2}{2}}dx = C \times I = C \times \sqrt{2\pi}. $

Now, solving for the constant $ C: $

$ C = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}. $

Answer 2

Write it here.

Answer 3

Write it here.


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