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To show the relationship between the Fourier Transform of frequency <math>\omega</math> versus frequency <math>f</math> (in hertz) we start with the definitions:
 
To show the relationship between the Fourier Transform of frequency <math>\omega</math> versus frequency <math>f</math> (in hertz) we start with the definitions:
 
<math>X(w)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)e^{-jwt} dt  \qquad \qquad \qquad \qquad  X(f)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}x(t)e^{-j2\pi ft} dt </math>
 
<math>X(w)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)e^{-jwt} dt  \qquad \qquad \qquad \qquad  X(f)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}x(t)e^{-j2\pi ft} dt </math>
 +
 +
  
 
now we let <math>\omega</math> = 2<math>\pi</math><math>f</math>
 
now we let <math>\omega</math> = 2<math>\pi</math><math>f</math>

Revision as of 11:24, 18 September 2014


Fourier Transform as a Function of Frequency w Versus Frequency f (in Hertz)

A slecture by ECE student Randall Cochran

Partly based on the ECE438 Fall 2014 lecture material of Prof. Mireille Boutin.



To show the relationship between the Fourier Transform of frequency $ \omega $ versus frequency $ f $ (in hertz) we start with the definitions: $ X(w)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)e^{-jwt} dt \qquad \qquad \qquad \qquad X(f)=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}x(t)e^{-j2\pi ft} dt $


now we let $ \omega $ = 2$ \pi $$ f $




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