Revision as of 09:59, 2 July 2008 by Luo7 (Talk)

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$ \sup\limits_n\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\leq\sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|+\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f| $

$ Since \int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|\to0(n\to\infty), \sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|=0 $

To show $ \sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\to0(M\to\infty), $it suffices to show that $ \sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|\to0(M\to\infty) $

Alumni Liaison

Correspondence Chess Grandmaster and Purdue Alumni

Prof. Dan Fleetwood