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<math>\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\leq\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|+\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|</math>
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<math>\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\leq\sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|+\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|</math>
  
<math>Since \int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|\to0(n\to\infty)</math>, it suffices to show that <math>\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|\to0(M\to\infty)</math>
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<math>Since \int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|\to0(n\to\infty), \sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|=0</math>
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To show <math>\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\to0(M\to\infty),</math>it suffices to show that <math>\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|\to0(M\to\infty)</math>

Revision as of 09:56, 2 July 2008

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$ \sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\leq\sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|+\sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f| $

$ Since \int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|\to0(n\to\infty), \sup\int_{(0,1)}|f_n-f|=0 $

To show $ \sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f_n|\to0(M\to\infty), $it suffices to show that $ \sup\int_{\{|f_n|>M\}}|f|\to0(M\to\infty) $

Alumni Liaison

Questions/answers with a recent ECE grad

Ryne Rayburn