Revision as of 10:18, 10 July 2008 by Dvtran (Talk)

Since all the $ f_{n} $ are AC, there exists $ f_{n}^{'} $ such that $ f_{n}(x)=f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(0)=\int_{0}^{x}f_{n}^{'}(t)dt $ and $ f_{n}^{'} $ are nonnegative almost everywhere.

Let $ g_{n}(x)= \sum_{1}^{n}f_{n}(x) $

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Correspondence Chess Grandmaster and Purdue Alumni

Prof. Dan Fleetwood