(New page: Well, you know that F^-1 is an inverse function of an arbitrary function. Something you need to keep in mind is that F(F^-1(X)) is equal to X because the Function of the inverse function ...)
 
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Well, you know that F^-1  is an inverse function of an arbitrary function. Something you need to keep in mind is that F(F^-1(X)) is equal to X because the Function of the inverse function gives you the variable. As a result, what we did in this problem is first we wrote the P(X < x), and because X is an inverse function, we took the function of both sides. As a result, we got (U<= F(x))
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** Part a
  
I hope that helps
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This problems is the same one that we had in class the other day. First you write down the sequence which is ( (1-p)^6*p^4)).  Then you take the derivative in term of p and solve for p
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**part b
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you follow the same procedure as above, but now , you just need to use variables instead

Revision as of 18:20, 1 November 2008

    • Part a

This problems is the same one that we had in class the other day. First you write down the sequence which is ( (1-p)^6*p^4)). Then you take the derivative in term of p and solve for p

    • part b

you follow the same procedure as above, but now , you just need to use variables instead

Alumni Liaison

Meet a recent graduate heading to Sweden for a Postdoctorate.

Christine Berkesch