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| − | + | Alright I know that problem 1 is easy cause you just have to integrate out the y for fx(x) and integrate out the x for fy(y)...BUT integrating out the y is horrible. i know its a uv - integral of vdu...but the original expression stays...so i subtracted it over to the other side and divided by the (1 + 1/(1+x) that remained. Is that the right avenue to go? cause it seems crazy but mathematically I think it works -- Cory | |
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| − | + | I know this is really late to post a response to this, but just in case anyone is randomly looking around here like I was, that is perfectly okay mathematically to do. It's really the only good way I know of integrating something multiplied by a sin, cos (or any exponential for that matter). --Matt | |
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Latest revision as of 11:53, 1 April 2009
Alright I know that problem 1 is easy cause you just have to integrate out the y for fx(x) and integrate out the x for fy(y)...BUT integrating out the y is horrible. i know its a uv - integral of vdu...but the original expression stays...so i subtracted it over to the other side and divided by the (1 + 1/(1+x) that remained. Is that the right avenue to go? cause it seems crazy but mathematically I think it works -- Cory
I know this is really late to post a response to this, but just in case anyone is randomly looking around here like I was, that is perfectly okay mathematically to do. It's really the only good way I know of integrating something multiplied by a sin, cos (or any exponential for that matter). --Matt
