(Question for Brian) |
(No difference)
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Latest revision as of 17:36, 11 November 2008
Brian, I understand your explanation that the probability function with n must be greater than both the function with n+1 and for n-1, but how did you derive the limits of (10^6/p - 1) and (10^6/p)? I see that the derivative of the probability function with respect to n is not defined, and that the sandwich theorem is used, but I don't understand how you got these limits?
