Alright I know that problem 1 is easy cause you just have to integrate out the y for fx(x) and integrate out the x for fy(y)...BUT integrating out the y is horrible. i know its a uv - integral of vdu...but the original expression stays...so i subtracted it over to the other side and divided by the (1 + 1/(1+x) that remained. Is that the right avenue to go? cause it seems crazy but mathematically I think it works -- Cory

I know this is really late to post a response to this, but just in case anyone is randomly looking around here like I was, that is perfectly okay mathematically to do. It's really the only good way I know of integrating something multiplied by a sin, cos (or any exponential for that matter). --Matt